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College prep∫Calculus●●●●○· 6 min
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Why the harmonic series diverges (but $\sum 1/n^2$ doesn't)

$\sum 1/n$ diverges, while $\sum 1/n^2$ converges. Elegant proof by grouping, plus the Riemann criterion.

The theorem

  • βˆ‘n=1∞1n\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n} diverges. (Harmonic series)
  • βˆ‘n=1∞1nΞ±\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{n^\alpha} converges iff Ξ±>1\alpha > 1. (Riemann series)

Elegant proof by grouping (Oresme, 1350)

Group terms by sizes 1,2,4,8,…1, 2, 4, 8, \dots:

1+12+(13+14)⏟>2Γ—1/4=1/2+(15+β‹―+18)⏟>4Γ—1/8=1/2+…1 + \dfrac{1}{2} + \underbrace{\left(\dfrac{1}{3} + \dfrac{1}{4}\right)}_{> 2 \times 1/4 = 1/2} + \underbrace{\left(\dfrac{1}{5} + \dots + \dfrac{1}{8}\right)}_{> 4 \times 1/8 = 1/2} + \dots

Each group is strictly more than 1/21/2. Since there’s an infinity of groups, the sum is infinite.

Why βˆ‘1/n2\sum 1/n^2 converges

Decomposition by telescoping: 1n2<1n(nβˆ’1)=1nβˆ’1βˆ’1n\dfrac{1}{n^2} < \dfrac{1}{n(n-1)} = \dfrac{1}{n-1} - \dfrac{1}{n}.

Summing, everything telescopes and the sum is bounded by 2. In fact, βˆ‘1n2=Ο€26\displaystyle \sum \dfrac{1}{n^2} = \dfrac{\pi^2}{6} (Euler, 1735).

The Riemann criterion rule

1nΞ±\dfrac{1}{n^\alpha} converges iff the power exceeds 1. Applications:

  • βˆ‘1/n=βˆ‘1/n1/2\sum 1/\sqrt{n} = \sum 1/n^{1/2} β†’ diverges (1/2<11/2 < 1)
  • βˆ‘1/n3\sum 1/n^3 β†’ converges
  • βˆ‘1/(nln⁑n)\sum 1/(n \ln n) β†’ diverges (integral comparison)

Useful comparisons

  • If ∣unβˆ£β‰€vn|u_n| \leq v_n and βˆ‘vn\sum v_n converges, then βˆ‘un\sum u_n converges.
  • If un∼vnu_n \sim v_n at infinity (same signs), βˆ‘un\sum u_n and βˆ‘vn\sum v_n have the same nature.
?Your turn

Which of these series converges?

Mini-quiz

Question 1 / 3

The harmonic series Ξ£ 1/n:

#series#harmonic#Riemann#convergence#prep

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